Clear The Confusion On NONE

Consider these sentences:
* None of the speakers has spoken well.
* None of the speakers have spoken well.

Which one is correct? None means “not one”. It is one word which has confused many writers and speakers since time immemorial. Some treat it as singular, others plural. Strictly going by grammar rules, none always takes a singular verb. But the widespread dual usage for long time and the Modern English have made its plural treatment acceptable.

The Oxford English Dictionary explicitly states that plural construction with none is “common”. So the two sentences mentioned in the beginning are correct. But great English educators like HW Fowler and JC Nesfield have given us a middle path:

When using none alone, treat it as singular; and in
the construction none+ of+plural nouns, treat it as plural. For e.g.

* None speaks well.
* None of them speak well.

In the end, the only thing I can say is: “the choice is yours”.
If there’s any confusion, let me know.